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2014 Latest EXIN EX0-102 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is a description of Governance?

A.    How IT resources will be used to meet goals and deliver business value
B.    a process that ensures individualsare aware of regulations, policies, and procedures that must be followed as a result of senior management decisions management
C.    Who holds the authority to make decisions, determines accountability for actions and responsibility for outcomes, and addresses how expected performance will be evaluated
D.    Possible adverse impacts on reaching goals and can arise from actions taken or not taken

Answer: C

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2014 Latest EMC E20-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?

A.    1 hour
B.    2 hours
C.    3 hours
D.    4 hours

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-027 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about the use of direct path loads when selecting from external tables in a database on a Database Machine?

A.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
require the APPEND hint to use direct path loading.
B.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, attempt to use in
direct path loading automatically.
C.    CREATE TABLE . . . AS SELECT statements, which select from external tables, require the APPEND
hint to use direct path loading.
D.    INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements, executed serially, which select from external tables,
are unable to use direct path loading.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A CTAS (Create table as select) will always use direct path (B, not C) load but IAS (Insert as select) statement will not. In order to achieve direct path load with an IAS statement you must add the APPEND hint to the command (A, not D).
Direct path loads can also run in parallel. You can set the parallel degree for a direct path load either by adding the PARALLEL hint to the CTAS or IAS statement or by setting the PARALLEL clause on both the external table and the table into which the data will be loaded.
Once the parallel degree has been set at CTAS will automatically do direct path load in parallel but an IAS will not. In order to enable an IAS to do direct path load in parallel you must alter the session to enable parallel DML.
Note:
* Parallel Direct Path Load
The key to good load performance is to use direct path loads wherever possible. A direct path load parses the input data according to the description given in the external table definition, converts the data for each input field to its corresponding Oracle data type, then builds a column array structure for the data. These column array structures are used to format Oracle data blocks and build index keys. The newly formatted database blocks are then written directly to the database, bypassing the standard SQL processing engine and the database buffer cache. Reference: Best Practices for Implementing a Data Warehouse on the Oracle Exadata Database Machine; Using CTAS & Exchange Partition Replace IAS for Copying Partition on Exadata

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2014 Latest CompTIA 225-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA ADR-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA 220-701 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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2014 Latest CompTIA 220-702 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the access level of a user that belongs to both the Administrators and Users groups?

A.    User
B.    Administrator
C.    Power User
D.    Remote Desktop User

Answer: B

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2014 Latest Citrix 1Y0-308 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    The administrator should execute the "Remove Access Gateway" task from the "Gateway Appliances" node in the Access Management Console.
B.    The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C.    The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D.    The administrator should uncheck the "Access Gateway" role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the "Manage Server Roles" dialog of the Access Management Console.

Answer: AC

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